Series: NOV 2011

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AAA – Nov 2012 – L3 – SA – Q16 – Review of Subsequent Events and Going Concern Assumptions

Identifying the appropriate signatories for a Letter of Representation.

The Letter of representation is normally signed by:

A. Managing Director and Chairman of the Board
B. Managing Director and Company Secretary
C. Managing Director and Finance Director
D. Chairman of the Board and Finance Director
E. Chairman of Audit Committee and the Managing Director

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AAA – Nov 2012 – L3 – SA – Q15 – Audit of IT Systems and Data Analytics

Key focus areas for IT Auditors in a risk-based audit program.

While developing a risk-based audit program, the Information Technology Auditor most likely will focus on:

A. Strategic controls
B. Critical IT applications
C. Operation control
D. Business strategy
E. Business process

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AAA – Nov 2012 – L3 – SA – Q9 – Regulatory Framework and Professional Standards

Identifying an invalid statement about the benefits and use of IFRS.

Which of the statements listed below about IFRS is invalid?

A. Multinational should benefit from a number of cost savings when using IFRS
B. Companies that wish to reach a wider group of investors will find financial statements based on IFRS acceptable in all major markets
C. Using IFRS will make it easier, though more expensive, to have secondary listing in other countries of the world
D. Using the same accounting basis provides greater comparability between companies which will lead to more efficient investment
E. The original standard setter between (1973-2000) was International Accounting Standard Committee (IASC)

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AAA – Nov 2011 – L3 – SB – Q6 – Internal Audit and Corporate Governance

Explores the functions and significance of various committees and concepts in governance, including the Public Accounts Committee and due diligence.

Write short notes on the following:

(a) Public Accounts Committee
(3 Marks)

(b) Value-for-Money Audit
(3 Marks)

(c) Audit Alarm Committee
(3 Marks)

(d) Due Diligence
(3 Marks)

(e) Due Process
(3 Marks)

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AAA – Nov 2011 – L3 – SB – Q5 – Review of Subsequent Events and Going Concern Assumptions

Identifies going concern symptoms, audit procedures for evaluating going concern, and factors to assess continuation potential.

When a company is experiencing going concern problems, it may exhibit various financial and non-financial symptoms.

Required:

(a) State FIVE financial and FIVE non-financial going concern symptoms.
(5 Marks)

(b) State the audit procedures you would adopt as an auditor to determine whether a client company is experiencing going concern problems.
(6 Marks)

(c) What other factors would you consider in assessing if the company can continue despite the going concern issues?
(4 Marks)

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AAA – Nov 2011 – L3 – SB – Q4 – Ethical Issues in Auditing

Clarifies auditor's statutory responsibilities, provisions in CAMA to reduce the communication gap, and controls for addressing performance gaps.

The role of auditors is commonly misconceived. Many people argue that the auditor is expected to detect all frauds and irregularities in a client’s business. Others believe that the auditor should act more like a court of justice where truth is defended. In fact, the auditor’s responsibilities, powers, and duties are defined by statutes, ethics, and auditing standards.

Required:

(a) What are the provisions available in the Companies and Allied Matters Act Cap C20 LFN, 2004, which seek to reduce the communication gap between the auditor and the shareholders?
(7 Marks)

(b) Explain EIGHT controls available to address the problem of the performance gap.
(8 Marks)

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AAA – Nov 2011 – L3 – SB – Q3 – Audit of Corporate Governance

Key objectives and structures within corporate governance, focusing on the audit committee's role and board actions affecting governance.

(a) Outline the main objective of corporate governance.
(3 Marks)

(b) One of the tools of corporate governance in Nigeria is the establishment of the Audit Committee under Section 359 (6) of Companies and Allied Matters Act Cap C20 LFN, 2004. What are the composition and functions of an Audit Committee?
(6 Marks)

(c) State SIX instances when the corporate governance of a public company may be compromised by the Board of Directors.
(6 Marks)

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AAA – Nov 2011 – L3 – SB – Q2 – Regulatory Framework and Professional Standards

Overview and impact of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act on corporate accountability and self-regulation.

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, enacted in the United States to guide and regulate the work of accountants and auditors, raised issues about the culture of self-regulation in the accounting profession.

You are required to:

(a) State the reason for its enactment and issues covered therein.
(2 Marks)

(b) State its main provisions that relate to corporate accountability.
(8 Marks)

(c) List the merits of this Act.
(5 Marks)

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AAA – Nov 2011 – L3 – SB – Q1 – Application of Audit and Assurance Principles

Evaluate the steps for identifying and responding to fraud risk during audit planning.

Fela Idaewor is the auditor for Matty Co. Ltd, a rapidly expanding retail business based in Lekki. This is her first year as the audit manager. During her engagement planning, she observed multiple risk factors, such as the company’s strong interest in maintaining earnings and share prices, unrealistic financial forecasts, and high reliance on debt financing for expansion. Additionally, there were strong indications that fraud might have been committed by top management.

Required
(a) What should Idaewor do about the possibility of fraud at the planning stage? (7 Marks)
(b) What documentation is required for identifying risk factors? (5 Marks)
(c) If Idaewor has evidence suggesting fraud, what are her communication responsibilities to management? (3 Marks)

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AAA – Nov 2011 – L3 – SAII – Q20 – Assurance Engagements

Definition of an assurance engagement's objective in providing confidence to users.

An assignment in which the practitioner expresses a conclusion designed to enhance the degree of confidence of the intended users other than the responsible party about the outcome of the evaluation or measurement of a subject matter is…………………………

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BL – Nov 2011 – L1 – SA – Q9 – Company Law

Identify the membership limit of a private company excluding certain members.

The type of company that limits its membership to fifty, excluding past and present employees who have acquired shares by virtue of their employment, is a:
A. Limited partnership
B. Public company
C. Private company
D. Cooperative society
E. Unlimited company

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BL – Nov 2011 – L1 – SA – Q8 – Negotiable Instruments

Identify which type of acceptance does not qualify as a qualified acceptance of a Bill.

A qualified acceptance of a Bill may occur in any of the following ways EXCEPT by:
A. Conditional acceptance
B. Partial acceptance
C. Restriction of payment to a place
D. Signature
E. Stipulation of time of payment

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BL – Nov 2011 – L1 – SA – Q7 – Law Relating to Banking

Identify the threshold at which a financial institution must report to the EFCC.

A financial institution has the duty to report to the Economic and Financial Crimes Commission (EFCC) within seven days of lodgement by an individual of an amount exceeding:
A. N100,000,000
B. N10,000,000
C. N5,000,000
D. N2,500,000
E. N1,000,000

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BL – Nov 2011 – L1 – SA – Q6 – Partnership Law

Identify which aspect is not required in partnership agreements.

The parties in a partnership arrangement must agree on all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Profit sharing
B. Business management
C. Capital contribution
D. Dissolution
E. Pension reform

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BL – Nov 2011 – L1 – SA – Q5 – Introduction to Law

Identify the legal term that represents the material facts and decision of the court.

Which of the following constitutes the material facts of a case and the decision of the court thereon?
A. Res judicata
B. Ratio decidendi
C. Ratione soli
D. Obiter dictum
E. Judicial precedent

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BL – Nov 2011 – L1 – SA – Q4 – Partnership Law

Identify the minimum number of general partners required in a valid limited partnership.

The minimum number of general partner(s) in a valid limited partnership is:
A. Two
B. Three
C. One
D. Four
E. Five

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BL – Nov 2011 – L1 – SA – Q3 – Law of Contract

Identify an example of a contract of utmost good faith.

An example of a contract of utmost good faith is a contract of:
A. Hire purchase
B. Companies
C. Sale of goods
D. Insurance
E. Accountants

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BL – Nov 2011 – L1 – SA – Q2 – Law of Contract

Identify the process where the insurer is substituted into the insured's rights after claim payment.

After payment of the insured’s claim, the substitution of the insurer to all the insured’s rights is called:
A. Indemnity
B. Act policy
C. Subrogation
D. Insurable interest
E. Claim note

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BL – Nov 2011 – L1 – SA – Q1 – Law of Contract

Identify the party in a contract of insurance that pays the premium for indemnity.

In a contract of insurance, the party that pays the premium in return for the insurer’s promise of indemnity is the:
A. Insurance company
B. Insurer
C. Contractor
D. Insured
E. Third party

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FA – Nov 2011 – L1 – SB – Q6 – Recording Financial Transactions

This question requires the journal entries to record consignment transactions.

The following transactions were recorded in the books of Fadep Enterprises:

(i) On 1 October 2010, Fadep Enterprises sent goods worth N160,000 on consignment to Associate Enterprises and incurred expenses on transportation and loading of N4,800 and N1,200 respectively.
(ii) On 7 October 2010, Associate Enterprises received the consignment and paid N80,000 into the bank account of Fadep Enterprises.
(iii) On 31 October 2010, Associate Enterprises prepared and sent an Account Sales to Fadep Enterprises having made sales of N180,000. The remaining goods on hand were valued at N16,000 at original cost.
(iv) Associate Enterprises deducted 2.5% as commission and off-loading expenses of N2,000.
(v) On 5 November 2010, Associate Enterprises sold the remaining goods for N20,000.

You are required to:
(a) Prepare the journal entries with narration to record the above transactions in the books of Fadep Enterprises. (13 marks)
(b) State TWO principal differences between goods on consignment and sale of goods. (2 marks)

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